DBMS MCQ

Does index take space in the disk ?
A. It stores memory as and when required
B. Yes, Indexes are stored on disk
C. Indexes are never stored on disk
D. Indexes take no space
Answer: Option B

If an index is _________________ the metadata and statistics continue to exists
A. Disabling
B. Dropping
C. Altering
D. Both a and b
Answer: Option A

In _______________ index instead of storing all the columns for a record together, each column is stored separately with all other rows in an index.
A. Clustered
B. Column store
C. Non clustered
D. Row store
Answer: Option B

A _________________ index is the one which satisfies all the columns requested in the query without performing further lookup into the clustered index.
A. Clustered
B. Non Clustered
C. Covering
D. B-Tree
Answer: Option C

In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer: Option A

A table on the many side of a one to many or many to many relationship must:
A. Be in Second Normal Form (2NF)
B. Be in Third Normal Form (3NF)
C. Have a single attribute key
D. Have a composite key
Answer: Option D

Tables in second normal form (2NF):
A. Eliminate all hidden dependencies
B. Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
C. Have a composite key
D. Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
Answer: Option A

Which-one ofthe following statements about normal forms is FALSE?
A. BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
B. Lossless, dependency -preserving decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
C. Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
D. Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
Answer: Option C

Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
A. Key
B. Key revisited
C. Superset key
D. None of these
Answer: Option A

Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the relationship between attributes:
A. Functional dependency
B. Database modeling
C. Normalization
D. Decomposition
Answer: Option C

Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups:
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: Option C

Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
A. 2NF
B. 3NF
C. 4NF
D. 5NF
Answer: Option C

 Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 4NF
Answer: Option C

Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode). For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state, there is just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
A. 1 NF only
B. 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
C. 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
D. BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF
Answer: Option B

How many types of indexes are there in sql server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option B

How non clustered index point to the data?
A. It never points to anything
B. It points to a data row
C. It is used for pointing data rows containing key values
Answer: Option C

Which one is true about clustered index?
A. Clustered index is not associated with table
B. Clustered index is built by default on unique key columns
C. Clustered index is not built on unique key columns
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option B

What is true about indexes?
A. Indexes enhance the performance even if the table is updated frequently
B. It makes harder for sql server engines to work to work on index which have large keys
C. It doesn’t make harder for sql server engines to work to work on index which have large keys
Answer: Option B

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1. A ..................... specifies the actions needed to remove the drawbacks in the current design of database.

A) 1 NF

B) 2 NF

C) 3 NF

D) Normal form

2. A relation is in ........................... if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key.

A) 2NF

B) 3NF

C) BCNF

D) 1NF


3. Fifth Normal form is concerned with

A) Functional dependency

B) Multivalued dependency

C) Join dependency

D) Domain key


4. A table is in the ....................... if only candidate keys are the determinants.

A) functional dependency

B) transitive dependency

C) 4 NF

D) BCNF



5. In 2NF

A) No functional dependencies exist.

B) No multivalued dependencies exist.

C) No partial functional dependencies exist

D) No partial multivalued dependencies exist.

6. The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is

A) 2NF

B) 3NF

C) BCNF

D) 4NF



7. The ................. is related to the concept of multi-valued dependency.

A) fourth normal form
B) fifth normal form
C) boyce codd normal form
D) third normal form


8. Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?

A) 2NF

B) 5NF

C) 4NF

D) 3NF

9. Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in

A) BCNF

B) 3NF

C) 4NF

D) DKNF


10. A relation is ................... if every field contains only atomic values that is, no lists or sets.

A) 1 NF

B) 2 NF

C) 3 NF

D) BCNF

11. ............................ is the powerful language for working with RDBMS.

A) Embedded Programs

B) Dynamic Program

C) Query Language

D) Static Language Programs

2. The file in DBMS is called as .................. in RDBMS.

A) console

B) schema

C) table

D) object

3. In ..................... , we have a strict parent-child relationship only

A) hierarchical databases.

B) network databases

C) object oriented databases

D) relational databases

4. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?

A) 2 NF

B) 3 NF

C) 4 NF

D) BCNF

5. What operator tests column for the absence of data?

A) IS NULL operator

B) ASSIGNMENT operator

C) LIKE operator

D) NOT operator

6. Which is proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in order to hide or protect information.

A) Schema

B) Sub-schema

C) Non-schema

D) Non-sub schema

7. Which contain information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file records?

A) File blocks

B) File operators

C) File headers

D) None of these

8. A .................... DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and network server.

A) Network

B) Relational

C) Client Server

D) Hierarchical

9. The .................... refers to the way data is organized in and accessible from DBMS.

A) database hierarchy

B) data organization

C) data sharing

D) data model

10. ................. is a statement that is executed automatically by the system.

A) trigger

B) assertion

C) durability

D) integrity constraint

21. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and GRANT statements in a single transaction?

A) CREATE PACKAGE

B) CREATE SCHEMA

C) CREATE CLUSTER

A) All of the above
2. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used

A) to create a place in the database for storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming the data files to comprise the tablespace.
B) to create a database trigger.
C) to add/rename data files, to change storage

D) All of the above

3. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character string?
A) INSTR
B) SUBSTRING
C) SUBSTR
D) POS

4. Which of the following is TRUE for the System Variable $date$?
A) Can be assigned to a global variable.
B) Can be assigned to any field only during design time.
C) Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.
D) Can be assigned to a local variable.
5. What are the different events in Triggers?
A) Define, Create
B) Drop, Comment
C) Insert, Update, Delete
D) Select, Commit

6. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database Structures, including tables
A) Data Definition Language
B) Data Manipulation Language
C) Data Described Language
D) Data Retrieval Language

7. The SQL statement SELECT SUBSTR('123456789', INSTR('abcabcabc','b'), 4) FROM EMP; prints

A) 6789
B) 2345
C) 1234
D) 456789

8. Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a database table?
A) MODIFY
B) UPDATE
C) CHANGE
D) NEW

9. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as ..........
A) nested query
B) nested programming
C) distinct query
D) embedded SQL

10. ................ provides option for entering SQL queries as execution time, rather than at the development stage.
A) PL/SQL
B) SQL*Plus
C) SQL
D) Dynamic SQL

11) The RDBMS terminology for a row is
A. tuple
B. relation
C. attribute
D. degree

12) To change column value in a table the ......... command can be used.
A. create
B. insert
C. alter
D. update

13) The full form of DDL is
A. Dynamic Data Language
B. Detailed Data Language
C. Data Definition Language
D. Data Derivation Language

14) To pass on granted privileges to other user the ...... clause is used

A. create option
B. grant option
C. update option
D. select option

15) A set of possible data values is called
A. attribute
B. degree
C. tuple
D. domain

16) ......... is critical in formulating database design.
A. row column order
B. number of tables
C. functional dependency
D. normalizing

17) A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them
B. Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them
C. Network model between the tables that connect them
D. None of the above


18) A ............. represents the number of entities to which another entity can be associated
A. mapping cardinality
B. table
C. schema
D. information

19) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language

20) A ........... is a set of column that identifies every row in a table.
A. composite key
B. candidate key
C. foreign key
D. super key

1. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
A) Keys
B) Translators
C) Program
D) Language Activity

2. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
A) Relations
B) Domains
C) Queries
D) All of the above

3. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
A) Entity
B) Attribute
C) Relationship
D) Notation

4. DFD stands for
A) Data Flow Document
B) Data File Diagram
C) Data Flow Diagram
D) Non of the above

5. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
A) Hierarchical schema
B) Network schema
C) Relational Schema
D) All of the above


6. ……………… table store information about database or about the system.
A) SQL
B) Nested
C) System
D) None of these

7. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs.
A) Instance
B) Schema
c) Program
D) Super Key

8. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
A) Select
B) Group-by
C) Having
D) Order by

9. A logical schema
A) is the entire database
B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
C) Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D) All of the above

10. ………………… is a full form of SQL.

A) Standard query language
B) Sequential query languag
C) Structured query language
D) Server side query language

11) A relational database developer refers to a record as
A. a criteria
B. a relation
C. a tuple
D. an attribute

12) .......... keyword is used to find the number of values in a column.
A. TOTAL
B. COUN
C. ADD
D. SUM

13) An advantage of the database management approach is
A. data is dependent on programs
B. data redundancy increases
C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
D. none of the above

14) The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is called as ......
A. schema
B. instance of the database
C. data domain
D. independence

15) Data independence means
A. data is defined separately and not included in programs.
B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
D. both B and C

16) A ......... is used to define overall design of the database
A. schema
B. application program
C. data definition language
D. code

17) Key to represent relationship between tables is called

A. primary key
B. secondary key
C. foreign key
D. none of the above

18) Grant and revoke are ....... statements.

A. DDL
B. TCL
C. DCL
D. DML

19) DBMS helps achieve
A. Data independence
B. Centralized control of data
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B

20) .......... command can be used to modify a column in a table
A. alter
B. update
C. set
D. create

1. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called ……………..

A) Alternate Key

B) Primary Key

C) Foreign Key

D) None of the above

2. …………….. is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows.

A) Unique predicate

B) Like Predicate

C) Null predicate

D) In predicate

3. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used

A) NODUPLICATE

B) ELIMINATE

C) DISTINCT

D) None of these

4. State true or false

i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.

ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.

A) i-true, ii-false

B) i-false, ii-true

C) i-true, ii-true

D) i-false, ii-false

5. DCL stands for

A) Data Control Language

B) Data Console Language

C) Data Console Level

D) Data Control Level

6. …………………… is the process of organizing data into related tables.

A) Normalization

B) Generalization

C) Specialization

D) None of the above

7. A ………………. Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and mostly are dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.

A) Weak entity

B) Strong entity

C) Non attributes entity

D) Dependent entity

8. …………….. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.

A) Sub string

B) Drop Table

C) Predict

D) Predicate

9. ………………… is preferred method for enforcing data integrity

A) Constraints

B) Stored Procedure

C) Triggers

D) Cursors

10. The number of tuples in a relation is called its …………. While the number of attributes in a relation is called it’s ………………..

A) Degree, Cardinality

B) Cardinality, Degree

C) Rows, Columns

D) Columns, Rows

11) The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to get it is

A. Procedural DML

B. Non-Procedural DML

C. Procedural DDL

D. Non-Procedural DDL

12) Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?

A. Query languages and utilities

B. DML and query language

C. Data dictionary and transaction log

D. Data dictionary and query language

13) The database schema is written in

A. HLL

B. DML

C. DDL

D. DCL

14) The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a

A. module

B. relational model

C. schema

D. sub schema

15) The relational model feature is that there

A. is no need for primary key data

B. is much more data independence than some other database models

C. are explicit relationships among records.

D. are tables with many dimensions

16) Which one of the following statements is false?

A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator

B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

C. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.

D. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

17) Which of the following are the properties of entities?

A. Groups

B. Table

C. Attributes

D. Switchboards

18) Which database level is closest to the users?

A. External

B. Internal

C. Physical

D. Conceptual

19) Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?

A. Passive and active

B. Total and partial

C. Simple and Complex

D. All of the above

20) ........ data type can store unstructured data

A. RAW

B. CHAR

C. NUMERIC

D. VARCHAR

1) Which of the following is not a recovery technique?

A. Deferred update

B. Immediate update

C. Two-phase commit

D. Recovery management

2)Checkpoints are a part of

A. Recovery measures

B. Security measures

C. Concurrency measures

D. Authorization measures

3) ....... deals with soft errors, such as power failures.

A. system recovery

B. media recovery

C. database recovery

D. failure recovery

4) ........... is an essential part of any backup system.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability

5) Media recovery deals with ...........

A. disk errors

B. hard errors

C. system errors

D. power failures

6) For a backup/restore system, ............. is a prerequisite for service in a enterprise.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability

7) Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ........

A. transaction recovery

B. database recovery

C. system recovery

D. value recovery

8) The .......... consists of the various applications and database that play a role in a backup and recovery strategy.

A. Recovery Manager environment

B. Recovery Manager suit

C. Recovery Manager file

D. Recovery Manager database

9) In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system failure?

A. Backup

B. Recovery

C. Both

D. None

10) A ........... is a block of Recovery Manager(RMAN)job commands that is stored in the recovery catalogue.

A. recovery procedure

B. recovery block

C. stored block

D. stored script

11) In log based recovery, the log is sequence of .........

A. filter

B. records

C. blocks

D. numbers

12) The enrolling of a database in a recovery catalogue is called .........

A. set up

B. registration

C. start up

D. enrolment

13) .......... is an alternative of log based recovery.

A. Disk recovery

B. Shadow paging

C. Dish shadowing

D. Crash recovery

14) Most backup and recovery commands in ........... are executed by server sessions.

A. Backup Manager

B. Recovery Manager

C. Backup and Recovery Manager

D. Database Manager

15) ........ systems typically allows to replace failed disks without stopping access to the system.

A. RAM

B. RMAN

C. RAD

D. RAID

16) An ......... is an exact copy of a single datafile, archived redo log file, or control file.

A. image copy

B. datafile copy

C. copy log

D. control copy

17) .......... known as memory-style error correcting-code(ECC) organization, employs parity bits.

A. RAID level 1

B. RAID level 2

C. RAID level 3

D. RAID level 4

18) The remote backup site is sometimes called the .......... site.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. ternary

D. None of the above

19) EXP command is used ...........

A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database

B. to import data from the exported dump file

C. to create Rollback segments

D. to create Schedule.

20) The simplest approach to introducing redundancy is to duplicate every disk is called .....

A. mirroring

B. imaging

C. copying

D. All of the above

1. Which of the following query is correct for using comparison operators in SQL?

A) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and <80;

B) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and age <80;

C) SELECT sname, coursename FROM studentinfo WHERE age>50 and WHERE age<80;

D) None of the above



2.How to select all data from studentinfo table starting the name from letter 'r'?

A) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE 'r%';

B) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '%r%';

C) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '%r';

D) SELECT * FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE '_r%';



3. Which of the following SQL query is correct for selecting the name of staffs from 'tblstaff' table where salary is 15,000 or 25,000?

A) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary IN (15000, 25000);

B) SELECT sname from tblstaff WHERE salary BETWEEN 15000 AND 25000;

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above



4. The SELECT statement, that retrieves all the columns from empinfo table name starting with d to p is ..........................

A) SELECT ALL FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[d-p]%';

B) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename is '[d-p]%';

C) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[p-d]%';

D) SELECT * FROM empinfo WHERE ename like '[d-p]%';



5. Select a query that retrieves all of the unique countries from the student table?

A) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM studentinfo;

B) SELECT UNIQUE coursename FROM studentinfo;

C) SELECT DISTINCT coursename FROM TABLE studentinfo;

D) SELECT INDIVIDUAL coursename FROM studentinfo;



6. Which query is used for sorting data that retrieves the all the fields from empinfo table and listed them in the ascending order?

A) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER BY age;

B) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER age;

C) SELECT * FROM empinfo ORDER BY COLUMN age;

D) SELECT * FROM empinfo SORT BY age;



7. Select the right statement to insert values to the stdinfo table.

A) INSERT VALUES ("15", "Hari Thapa", 45, 5000) INTO stdinfo;

B) INSERT VALUES INTO stdinfo ("15", "Hari Thapa", 45, 5000);

C) INSERT stdinfo VALUES ("15", "Hari Thapa", 45, 5000);

D) INSERT INTO stdinfo VALUES ("15", "Hari Thapa", 45, 5000);



8. How to Delete records from studentinfo table with name of student 'Hari Prasad'?

A) DELETE FROM TABLE studentinfo WHERE sname='Hari Prasad';

B) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname='Hari Prasad';

C) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE COLUMN sname='Hari Prasad';

D) DELETE FROM studentinfo WHERE sname LIKE 'Hari Prasad';



9. Constraint checking can be disabled in existing ............. and .............. constraints so that any data you modify or add to the table is not checked against the constraint.

A) CHECK, FOREIGN KEY

B) DELETE, FOREIGN KEY

C) CHECK, PRIMARY KEY

D) PRIMARY KEY, FOREIGN KEY



10. ..................... joins two or more tables based on a specified column value not equaling a specified column value in another table.

A) OUTER JOIN

B) NATURAL JOIN

C) NON-EQUIJOIN

D) EQUIJOIN

1. In SQL, which command is used to remove a stored function from the database?

A) REMOVE FUNCTION

B) DELETE FUNCTION

C) DROP FUNCTION

D) ERASE FUNCTION

2. In SQL, which command is used to select only one copy of each set of duplicate rows

A) SELECT DISTINCT

B) SELECT UNIQUE

C) SELECT DIFFERENT

D) All of the above

3. Count function in SQL returns the number of

A) Values

B) Distinct values

C) Groups

D) Columns

4. Composite key is made up of ................

A) One column

B) One super key

C) One foreign key

D) Two or more columns

5. What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?

A) Grant

B) Revoke

C) Execute

D) Run

6. Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes it?

A) CMD

B) OPEN

C) EXECUTE

D) RUN



7. What is a DATABLOCK?

A) Set of Extents

B) Set of Segments

C) Smallest Database storage unit

D) Set of blocks



8. If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the hierarchy between them?

A) There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups.

B) The group that is right ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.

C) The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to right or below it.

D) The group that is left ranks higher than the group that is to the right.



9. Which of the following types of triggers can be fired on DDL operations?

A) Instead of Trigger

B) DML Trigger

C) System Trigger

D) DDL Trigger



10. What operator performs pattern matching?

A) IS NULL operator

B) ASSIGNMENT operator

C) LIKE operator

D) NOT operator